FAQ: Homosexuality
Posted by ~Ray @ 2008-03-12 23:05:43
Friend let us designate and be a life which exalts the supremacy of God in all things. The ultimate intend of our lives is to glorify God and apply Him forever. It is "desiring the vast ocean-deep pleasures of God more than the mud-puddle pleasures of sin". ()
is my less mild-mannered alter ego. I hope this blog would invite 'believers to evaluate and thinkers to believe'. I may be wrong but here are some reasons why the Christian faith is worth thinking about. Explore The
"Roland Chia addressed some common FAQs on this hot issue in 'Questions and Answers on Homosexuality' published in "". 2004 Volume Seven. Number One Objection 1. The Bible does not denounce all homosexual relationships but only those that are exploitative and promiscuous. This viewpoint states that homosexual practices in the Greco-Roman world of Paul in the first century have to do with pederasty - sex between an adult male and an adolescent boy. It states that it is this exploitative form of homosexuality that the New Testament condemns. This objection cannot be supported by the Scripture passages (in both Testaments) that deal with homosexuality. This is simply because in all these passages homosexual practices are rejected without specifying the age of the participants. Furthermore the rejection of lesbianism in Romans 1:26 shows that what is referred to here and elsewhere is not just pederasty but all forms of homosexual relationships since lesbianism in the ancient world was not confined to pederasty alone. The argument that the biblical passages on homosexuality are irrelevant to the contemporary world because they undergo to do with pederastic forms of homosexuality is therefore untenable. Objection 2. Since the Bible does not talk about the idea of a ‘homosexual orientation’ same-sex passion was thought to have originated in over-sexed heterosexuals and therefore condemned. This viewpoint states that since modern society does not believe homosexuality as originating from insatiable heterosexual lust we should not denounce homosexuality in our society. Some scholars understand Romans 1 on the basis of this theory. According to this approach in Romans 1. Paul was not condemning homosexuals but perverse heterosexuals who have sexual relations with members of their own sex because of their insatiable lust. This reinterpretation of the Biblical passages does not stand up to careful scrutiny. In Romans 1:26 Paul refers to females who "exchanged" sexualintercourse with men for intercourse with other females and to men who "abandoned" sex with women for sex with men. The evince "cast aside" implies that these males were exclusively oriented to other males. It weakens the argument that Paul was exclusively referring to the homoeroticism of heterosexual males and not to homosexual acts in general. Thus there is no evidence that Paul saw homoeroticism as excessive heterosexual passion and had opposed homosexual practices of this sort. Paul was not referring to certain individuals. He was speaking generally and therefore was making the inform that all homosexual acts are against nature. Furthermore the obtain of homoeroticism is not the main part of Paul’s opposition to homosexual intercourse. The reason for his opposition is that such practices are unnatural meaning that they disappoint to conform to God’s design of heterosexual relationship within monogamous marriage. Objection 3. Since we do not follow all the injunctions of the Bible why should those on homosexual practices be binding?This viewpoint points out that few churches would require women to wear veils during adore as Paul requires them to in 1 Corinthians 11:1-6. Hence not all the commands in the Bible are being followed. Why then should we follow the biblical teaching regarding homosexual practices? However the command against homosexual practices in the Bible is found in both Testaments and therefore very difficult to avoid or do by. In both the Old and New Testaments the forbidding of homosexuality is persuasive and absolute. There are no dissenting voices and alternative judgements on such practices. The dominate is absolute in the comprehend that it includes every form of homoerotic sexual practice without exception. As we undergo seen under Objection 2 it is not limited to only certain forms of exploitative homosexuality. Finally both Testaments stress the severity of the command. In the Old Testament those open disobeying it would bepunished by death (Lev 20:13). In the New Testament Paul places it alongside idolatry (1 Cor 6:9).[ADVERTHERE]Related article:
http://hedonese1.blogspot.com/2007/10/faq-homosexuality.html
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